Show that the function f:R→Rf: \mathbf{R} \rightarrow \mathbf{R}, defined as f(x)=x2f(x)=x^{2}, is neither one-one nor onto.

Answer: The function f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2 is neither one-one nor onto.

Step-by-step solution

Step 1: Check for One-One (Injectivity)

To check if a function is one-one, we assume f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2) and try to prove that x1=x2x_1 = x_2. For the given function f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2, if f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2), then x12=x22x_1^2 = x_2^2. This implies that x1=x2x_1 = x_2 or x1=−x2x_1 = -x_2.

Step 2: Provide a Counterexample for One-One

Since x1x_1 can be equal to −x2-x_2, the function is not one-one. For example, f(1)=1f(1) = 1 and f(−1)=1f(-1) = 1. Here, two different elements in the domain (1 and -1) map to the same element in the codomain (1).

Step 3: Check for Onto (Surjectivity)

To check if a function is onto, we need to show that for every element yy in the codomain, there exists an element xx in the domain such that f(x)=yf(x) = y. For f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2, we set x2=yx^2 = y, which means x=±yx = \pm \sqrt{y}.

Step 4: Provide a Counterexample for Onto

The domain and codomain are both the set of real numbers R\mathbf{R}. If we choose a negative number from the codomain, for example, y=−1y = -1, then x=±−1x = \pm \sqrt{-1}. This value of xx is not a real number. Therefore, there is no real number xx such that f(x)=−1f(x) = -1. This means not every element in the codomain has a pre-image in the domain, so the function is not onto.

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